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Tinuviel87
03-19-2003, 01:40 PM
So I have recently been re-reading book 3 in TTT and I found two things that puzzled me and I was hoping for some input.
~Firstly, when Frodo falls on Emyn Muil, why does he go temporarily blind?
~When Gollum is talking about the "dead faces" in the marshes and he mentions having tried to touch them, Sam thinks to himself that he knows why. Why would Gollum have tried to touch the faces? I feel like its something glaringly obvious that i just missed. smilies/rolleyes.gif

Mornie Alantie
03-19-2003, 01:52 PM
When Frodo goes blind Tolkien didn't really explian why. possibly just to show the power of the Elven rope.

Gollum would have thought that a dead thing flowting in the water to be a rather tasty dainty. smilies/tongue.gif smilies/smile.gif In other words, to eat the dead things.

Tinuviel87
03-19-2003, 01:54 PM
See i knew it was simpler than i was making it! haha thanks. Oh and btw, i love your quote its hysterical smilies/biggrin.gif

Legolas
03-19-2003, 01:58 PM
You're talking about Book IV, by the way.

Tinuviel87
03-19-2003, 03:07 PM
Whoops smilies/frown.gif sorry mixed up books III and IV smilies/eek.gif

Mornie Alantie
03-19-2003, 08:05 PM
Thanx about the qoute. There is always something simple miss with LOTR. even if it is something like the book number or what Sam meant by something. The fuh part is when you find out what it was! smilies/smile.gif

Beren87
03-21-2003, 12:43 AM
All your questions havn't been answered I think, I just wanted to say welcome and nice name! smilies/wink.gif

tifo_gcs
03-21-2003, 02:28 AM
Umm, maybe I'm missing something, but is it possible that Frodo THINKS he's gone blind because its in the middle of the night af the moonlight doesn't reach down to where he's at?