Coincidencial?
 

Isildur cut the One Ring from Sauron's hand (it was on his finger), and Frodo had the One Ring bitten from his hand (it was on his finger). Was this intended to be so by the great professor or did he just not notice?

Well, it could've been meant to be, but I believe it just makes the most sense. Neither Sauron nor Frodo were just going to let the Ring be pulled off their fingers, so the obvious way to part them would be to bite/slash that finger off. Isildur did it because he was in no position to politely ask Sauron to take off the ring and have tea with him. Gollum bit off Frodo's finger because...well, actually, it's just because he likes fingers, it has nothing to do with the Ring.

I just noticed that... but yeah Kransha is right. Welcome to the downs Ellwyn.:cool:

I personally think that he meant to do it. I always thought it was pretty cool about the "nine-fingers" thing. Very few things that Tolkien did were accidental, and I don't think this is one of them. Kransha does have a good point, that it was convenient just to have them lose the finger, but I think it was also done with purpose.

Well, there is finger-related symbolism (wow, that doesn't sound right). Nine fingers on Frodo and Sauron, nine members of the Fellowship, nine Nazgul, Nine bastions of evil, etc. That's probably just general linking symbolism; Fellowship - Nazgul, Frodo - Sauron, and onward.

Sauron lost more than one finger:rolleyes:

Only in the movie, Gil Galad...

Really.... man I haven't read the book in a awhile..

Estelyn beat me to it, but only because my browser whacked out on me last night. I did think it a strange thing that the movie showed several fingers coming off. It was a pointless detraction from the book. I also think the "fingers" of Sauron correspond to the nine Nazgul.

Thanks, Gil Galad :) and thank you all for responding to my topic!

Doesn't Gollum say something along those lines? Anyway, it's interesting, because Sauron gave out the 9 rings before he lost a finger. Did he just know that 9 was the right number of mortal men? Did there just happen to be 9 men who wanted rings? Was it all a coincidence?

More & more coincidences...;).

I didn't really think about Sauron having one finger for each of the Blackriders, that was probably purposed, though :p.

Rather because there were only nine rings available. If I remember it rightly, it took some time before he got the seven.

You know, when you come to think of it; the numbers for the rings are quite symbolic. Three rings for the Elven Kings and there were three houses of the Elves: Vanyar, Noldor and Teleri. The Vanyar dwells in the West, of course, and the three rings were not made by Sauron either. Yet Sauron might have wanted to enslave all of the Eldar in Middle-Earth at least via those three rings.

The Seven houses of Dwarves corresponded likewise to Sauron's seven rings. Those rings were either destroyed or taken back. I wondered sometimes what Sauron did with those rings that he got back...

I do not know about the Houses of Men. I certainly know that there were three Edain house in the First Age. Perhaps there were six houses of Easterlings too? The nine Nazgul were literally like Sauron's nine fingers. To combat the nine Black Riders, Elrond send out nine walkers. Note that the Fellowship of the Ring, which comprised of the nine Walkers was eventually left with eight, since Boromir died on the way. But Sauron's Nine was made into eight too: the Witchking was killed. The parallel along those lines might have been coincidental, but it certainly even out the numbers of contestant in the end.

Er, if Gollum is to be counted as being on the side of the Evil, (not just Sauron) then the Nine Nazgul might be counted as ten. Gollum had not faded and was under no command of Sauron, but he definately represented evil and he had possessed for a long time the One ring that ought to have been in the finger of Sauron. If that is the case, however, I should count Gandalf's death in Moria as being parallel with the Witchking's defeat. Note the Parley at the gate of Minas Tirith. Gandalf, returned from the dead, facing the Witchking who is just about to die and not return. Then Gollum's death at Mount Doom might also parallel with the death of Boromir. Both of them betrayed Frodo, and both died and at the same time fulfilled their vow.

The One Ring is Sauron's own. Surely he would not want to make another for somebody else? :D

I think that Tolkien intentionally did that, but who knows?