the Valar vs. Sauron
 

The Valar sent 5 maiar to help in the War against Sauron. But hears my question. Why didn't the valar go down and just kick Sauron's butt before he gained so much power. After the overthrow of Morgoth he hid and they didn't know where he was. But over time everyone knew where he was. And since Sauron was a maiar it would have been easy for the Valar (since there are alot of them and they're all more powerful than Sauron since he's a maiar) to go down there and kill Sauron. Any idea why they sent 5 maiar instead of going and killing him they're selves?

It wasn't the Valar's battle. The battle belonged to the peoples of ME. That's why the istari weren't aloud to use their true power. There are other topics like this. you might want to use the search function.

They were sent to help the peoples of middle earth, not to take matter into their own hands but to lead them, and it clearly shows that Gandalf did the most work

Try searching for discussions on free will in Middle-earth. The whole idea of creating the Elves and Men was so that they could have free will and fight their own battles. The Valar couldn't mollycoddle them all the time. They tried that in the First Age, and it failed catastrophically. Just look at the Rebellion of the Noldor! Also, after the destruction of Numenor, the Valar had given up their Guardianship of Middle-earth, and were no longer actively responsible for it. In any event, they could send emissaries (like the Istari) but they themselves could not come and defeat Sauron. That task was left to the Free Peoples of Middle-earth, to order and defend their own world.

I think all of you are right. Valar aren't responcebly for whatever trouble men and elves get themselfs into. Plus, if the valar squashed sauron like a bug, the lord of the rings would cease to exsist, because there would be nothing to write about. Plus, would the valar really want to go all the way to middle-earth just to squash a bug? (with a ring of power and a evil army of orcs)

After the end of the First Age, I believe that the Valar decided to withdraw to Aman and leave the people of Middle-Earth to fight their own battles.

Finwe said: IIRC, they just gave their Guardianship up for that time, not alltogether.

I looked it up and the Silm says:

I suppose that it's open to interpretation. I thought that the quote that you mentioned meant: "...and from that time onwards, they gave up their government of Arda."

To me 'for that time' is 'for that time' and not 'from that time onwards'.

Edit: I had a look in Letters and found this:

From Letter 131: And from Letter 156: According to Letter 131 the Valar themselves got the power to deal with the Númenóreans, while Letter 156 is not perfectly clear on this.
Anyway, the sending of the Istari is in my opinion proof of the Valar's government of Arda. Remember, that they were bound to Arda by Eru and had to rule it while it lasted.

<font size=1 color=339966>[ 3:38 PM January 19, 2004: Message edited by: Earendilyon ]