Letters of JRRT:
Quote:
155 To Naomi Mitchison (draft)
A passage from a draft of [Letter #144], which was not included in the version actually sent.
I am afraid I have been far too casual about 'magic' and especially the use of the word...
...
[Some paragraphs about magic in Middle-earth]
...
Anyway, a difference in the use of 'magic' in this story is that it is not come by by 'lore' or spells; but it is an inherent power not possessed or attainable be Men as such. Aragorn's 'healing' might be regarded as 'magical', or at least a blend of magic with pharmacy and 'hypnotic' processes. But it is (in theory) reported by hobbits who have very little notions about philosophy and science; While A. is not a pure 'Man', but at long remove one of the 'children of Lúthien'. [Note 2]
|
The letter ends here.
Note 2 says the following (these are notes by the editor):
Quote:
|
Alongside the final paragraph, Tolkien has written: 'But the Númenóreans used "spells" in making swords?'
|
So, like I said: Tolkien first wrote that Men couldn't use magic, and then he realized that they actually did use magic in the story.
I would also say that Mannish magic is limited to some specific individuals, who for some reason had special powers. Some (if not most) were Númenóreans, probably of Elros' line. This would at least make sense to me.
[ January 16, 2002: Message edited by: Elenhin ]