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ElanorGamgee · 07-10-2002, 08:04 PM

I think we're talking about two different things. I wasn't talking about when Gollum literally uses the pronoun "he" in his speech, as in your examples, but the implied "he/her/it" in his verb conjugation when referring to himself (or selves), since the verb is in the third person singular. I was considering whom the verb was representing, Gollum or Sméagol. For example, when he says, "We hates it," who exactly is "hates" representing? "We," it is widely agreed, represents both Slinker and Stinker. In the passages you listed, I agree that when he literally uses the word "he" in a sentence, Gollum is using it correctly to refer to whomever he is talking about, whether it be Sauron, Frodo, or otherwise.

[ July 10, 2002: Message edited by: ElanorGamgee ]

07-10-2002, 08:04 PM	#7
ElanorGamgee Shade of Carn Dûm Join Date: Mar 2002 Posts: 314	I think we're talking about two different things. I wasn't talking about when Gollum literally uses the pronoun "he" in his speech, as in your examples, but the implied "he/her/it" in his verb conjugation when referring to himself (or selves), since the verb is in the third person singular. I was considering whom the verb was representing, Gollum or Sméagol. For example, when he says, "We hates it," who exactly is "hates" representing? "We," it is widely agreed, represents both Slinker and Stinker. In the passages you listed, I agree that when he literally uses the word "he" in a sentence, Gollum is using it correctly to refer to whomever he is talking about, whether it be Sauron, Frodo, or otherwise. [ July 10, 2002: Message edited by: ElanorGamgee ] __________________ Soli Deo Gloria