Ahh, okay! I see now. Light finally dawns over Marblehead!
I think that, to use your example, "hates" is being used in place of the word "hate."
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I was considering whom the verb was representing, Gollum or Sméagol.
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I guess that the short answer to your question is, yes. [img]smilies/wink.gif[/img] Since they are the same person (sort of) it is just an incorrect use of the verb.
It is perhaps a way that Tolkien used to show how Gollum had degenerated through the use of such debased grammer. It is similar to his treatment of orcs.
[ July 10, 2002: Message edited by: Kuruharan ]