Mornie Alantie:
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It is insinuated throughout the whole LOTR world that it is not an occult type magic/power but a divinely given by Illuvitar natural power. When Tolkien rights the word "spells" in his book does it mean that Gandalf spent years in Valinor reading spellbooks and such? No. The Valar and the Maia were given that power specifically by Illuvitar and another lesser power but still great to the Elves.
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Exactly [img]smilies/smile.gif[/img] . Tolkien's 'magic' did NOT have anything to do with occultism... If elves could be representations of angels [other than the likes of Gandalf]-Illuvitar would be the representation of God, who therefore has the authority to give his angels a certain degree of 'magic-like' power.
And it is only given to the elves [angels] and not to the likes of man... Sorry if I'm going over my head again, but I hope you catch my drift. There can be no argument that Tolkien did not have occultism in his stories. It's very simple, and he made it even simpler with his letters.
[ March 14, 2003: Message edited by: InklingElf ]