I have read the unfinished tales as well and that thought has crossed my mind because the whole mystery of those two elves takes up quite a bit of space. But I also know that Tolkien himself didn't publish UT but his son did. Now where I get into the problem is that Tolkien published "Fellowship of the Ring" himself and with the quote previously stated wouldn't we take that as being more concrete then the UT. I mean we still have the question of what does "West" means and Tolkien did write the UT, he just didn't publish it. Now maybe Tolkien did have a one story about those two that he did use but Christopher Tolkien just decided to put both in. So I guess the mystery continues...
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