[Iarwain]

Has anyone considered that, perhaps, Frodo could not read the specific mode or alphabet that the text was set in? Perhaps he did know Quenya, Sindarin, etc., but that doesn't mean that his reading skills extended beyond the Cirth and into the Feanorian Tengwar. We must recognise that there are more aspects to script than mere language. In fact, one could successfully write volumes of sensible English text in Greek, Sanskrit, Russian, etc. characters with little to no difficulty. The form of the words and grammar would not change at all. Also, the transfer of riddle solving capability has nothing to do with the ability to understand language, and even if it did, this would be more of a "Tollers Inconsistency" and belong in the Books forum. We must remember that Gandalf (in both book and movie) reads the text aloud to the Fellowship, setting aside any need for language skills. <P><BR>Iarwain