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Old 12-06-2003, 02:01 PM   #21
mark12_30
Stormdancer of Doom
 
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From letter 246 on page 330, after a discussion of Gollum's love for Master Frodo and his near repentance, blighted by Sam.<P> <BLOCKQUOTE>quote:<HR>The interest would have shifted to Gollum, I think, and the battle that would have gone on between his repentance and his new love on one side and the Ring. Though the love would have been strengthened daily it could not have wrested the mastery from the Ring. I think that in some queer twisted and pitiable way Gollum would have tried (not maybe with conscious design) to satisfy both. Certainly at some point not long before the end he would have stolen the Ring or taken it by violence (as he does in the actual Tale). But 'posession' satisfied, I think he would have sacrificed himself for Frodo's sake and <I>voluntarily</I> cast himself into the fiery abyss.<HR></BLOCKQUOTE><P>The letter continues in a profound, moving and eye-opening analysis of Frodo's claiming the Ring on Mount Doom. <P>Generally speaking: if questions like this intrigue you and you do not have a copy of Tolkien's letters, get one. Aside from the Trilogy itself, it is the most valuable asset to understanding Tolkien's works.<P>Edit: In terms of Smeagol's method of aquiring the Ring (via bloodshed, and of a near kin at that) Gandalf himself implicitly contrasts Semagol's behavior with Bilbo's in The Shadow Of The Past, (page 58 of the omnibus or) page 85 of Fellowship, when he states:<BR> <BLOCKQUOTE>quote:<HR>"Pity? It was Pity that stayed his hand. Pity, and Mercy: not to strike without need. And he has been well rewarded, Frodo. Be sure that he took so little hurt from the evil, and escaped in the end, because he began his ownership of the Ring so. With Pity." <HR></BLOCKQUOTE><BR>It follows logically that Smeagol took plenty of harm from the Ring, and does not escape its evil, because he began his ownership of the Ring not with Pity but with murder.<p>[ 3:18 PM December 06, 2003: Message edited by: mark12_30 ]
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