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So the question is, would Arwen have died even if she accompanied Elrond to Valinor? That seems the only logical outcome of Legolas's argument. Otherwise, it must be argued that Arwen had no mortal blood in her, or that Elrond's decision to be an elf negated this mortal blood.
When we say 'mortal', are we talking biologically or doomically?
On the subject of elven genetics:
Elves and humans can produce fertile children, so that means that they must have the same number of chromosomes. I'm not a genetics expert, but that seems to indicate that elves and humans are biologically closely related, and that elves merely have more favorable expressed traits than humans. However, since they always express these favorable traits, and never recessive ones, this indicates that someone (Eru) made it this way on purpose.
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