[lindil]

I have postulated on older threads whose titles are now dim to my memory, that Lorien was indeed isolated from everyone but Imladris, what this basically means is that they were isolated from Thranduil and co. We know this from the strange remark of Celeborn to his kinsman of unknown degree Legolas.

Why would this be? surely even with Dol Guldor right across the river it would be easier to get to and from Mirkwood from Lorien than over the Ered Withrin!

The answer is given in UT [Galadriel and Celeborn appendices I think] where JRRT mentions that rulers like Thranduil and his father held a grudge [re: mengroth's destruction and the sack of the sons of feanor] still, against the Noldor [read specifically galadriel] and wanted nothing to do with them. Especially, one could imagine with Feanors neice who was sympathetic to Dwarves and had been on good terms with Celegorms son! Celebrimbor's renunciation of his dark-dad notwithstanding.

Elrond's sending Legolas was quite possibly an attempt at bridge-building.

Gandalf may also have been at a loss at how to get the Dwarves through or past Thranduils' realm and thus said nothing and wrote no letter of introduction!

There is also the fact that Thranduil would have been doubly ****ed at anyone having anything to do with the Rings of Power [again read Galadriel] as their secert and foolish forging led to the death of his father and a third of his army.

So... was Lorien self sufficient. Absolutely. They had to be. I imagine self-sufficiency to be a a goal and basic element of any Elvish community. Exceptions like trading with dwarves for metals during wartime being an exception.

thranduil would also be an exception as we read in the Hobbit, but that may be due to the fact that Mirkwood was just not as co-operative a forest as Lorien.


-L