[The Saucepan Man]

Saucie, I read (somewhere) that elves who had been to the West lived in both worlds-- the current world and the shadow world.

Yes indeed. But I was wondering whether the long-term effects of the Ring on them would be to restrict them solely to the "spirit-world" (just as it turns mortals to wraiths), or whether its "enwraithing" properties simply didn't work on them. It doesn't really matter as it's a hypothetical question, but it was just a thought prompted by Gandalf's specific reference to "mortals" in the passage which I quoted above.

My problem with the idea that the Ring inevitably corrupts its bearer is that if it does then Frodo (& Gollum) are in the end merely victims of its power, overwhelmed by a superior force that they can do nothing to withstand.

Well, Frodo is not necessarily a victim of its power. It depends whether or not it has totally enslaved him to its will by the time he reaches Mount Doom. If it has, then yes he is a victim. If not, he has a choice. But I don't think that we can deny what Gandalf is saying here about the inevitability of the Ring ultimately prevailing (with mortals at least) given sufficient time.

Clearly there is an important debate to be had concerning whether Frodo would ever have been able to destroy the Ring. My own view is that any analysis which suggests that someone else could have done it and that Frodo was simply not strong enough seriously impairs his character. But, perhaps that debate is best left until we actually reach Mount Doom in a year or so's time ( ).