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Originally Posted by Bombadil
It's weird, I alywas thought Namarië was pronounced: (Nah-Mar-ee-uh) But as Tolkien speaks it, he pronounces it: (Nah-Mar-ee- ay) Now I thought that ë at the end gave an "uh" sound? I suppose I'm wrong, but I thought "é" was the only form to give the "ay" sound. Does this mean Manwë is pronounced: (Man-way) ?
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"ë" does give"ay" sound Bombadil so Manwë would be pronounced (Man-way)
or atleast thats what I always thought. In French its "ay" so Im sure it must be in any other launguage.