[Amarinth]

this thread IS on fire! i get everyone's argument and they all seem valid (playing safe here...)

however, we seem to be missing a point: did tolkien write in the matriarch-less archetype crutch whatever CONSCIOUSLY? from what child has written, tolkien derived some feeling of loss from his own personal background subconsciously (right child? or not?).

now as can be perceived, the question of whether or not the motherless archetype is overused or not rests on the issue of whether or not tolkien consciously availed of this literary device! [img]smilies/eek.gif[/img]

peace be with all of us [img]smilies/biggrin.gif[/img]