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Old 01-07-2005, 05:36 PM   #26
Formendacil
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Maédhros
What is the special circumstance that made Sauron more dependant on his hröa than Melian? Because he had made the One Ring. I think that the Ring gave him more flexibility so that he was able to survive longer without being fully incarnate.
Maybe the Ring should be looked at from another angle. Perhaps to a certain extent, when Sauron created the One Ring, he not only infused a great deal of his power into it, but also his connection to a "physical form"?

In other words, perhaps to a certain extent, the Ring became Sauron's hröa after its creation? Not a full and complete hröa, obviously, but perhaps a PART of it, in a way, just as it became imbued with part of his power.

Thus, although the destruction of his body (twice) weakened him greatly, he continued to survive, not only because much of his power remained intact elsewhere, but because it remained in a part of his "body" elsewhere? Thus, when Frodo destroyed the Ring, it not only cost Sauron his power, but also the last portion of his hröa.

Also, another thought to do with that: the hröa is not just the physical body, but also, in a sort of complicated way that I can't readily find a quote to, includes the 'mind' and thoughts of the person. So, if the Ring is a part of Sauron's hröa, then it would follow that it has a part in his thoughts and mind, hence the "personification" of the Ring, its seeming consciousness and malevolent will.

Perhaps I'm reading too much into an aberrant thought on my part, but it seems almost plausible...
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