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Originally Posted by Boromir88
He had full right to claim Rohan when he claimed Kingship, but he didn't.
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Boromir, I disagree. In the Chapter-by-Chapter discussion of
The King of the Golden Hall, we discussed the fact that Rohan was an independent kingdom, allied with Gondor but not subserviant to the Gondorian king. Aragorn made a mistake there, from which he learned a lesson. He had absolutely no claim to any kind of rulership in Rohan. At the end of LotR, both Éomer and Aragorn are kings, renewing their friendship. Though one kingdom is greater and more influential than the other, neither falls under the jurisdiction of the other.
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'Mercy!' cried Gandalf. 'If the giving of information is to be the cure of your inquisitiveness, I shall spend all the rest of my days in answering you. What more do you want to know?' 'The whole history of Middle-earth..
.'