I believe I have heard the same, that farther is the indicator of distance. I have just looked it up in a dictionary (Websters Ninth New Collegiate Dictionary), and it has a note that says this: "Farther and further have been used more or less interchangeably throughout most of their history, but currently they are showing signs of diverging. As adverbs they continue to be used interchangeably whenever spatial, temporal, or metaphysical distance is involved. But where there is no notion of distance, further is used. [. . .] a polarizing process appears to be taking place in their adjective use. Farther is taking over the meaning of distance . . . " Thus perhaps it is that in Tolkien's time, no such polarization or divergence had yet taken place. My question is: why, if they originally were used interchangeably, was there a need for two such similar words?
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Then came there from the south of the city the people of the Fountain, and Ecthelion was their lord, and silver and diamonds were their delight; and swords very long and bright and pale did they wield . . .
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