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What Tolkien has done in OFS is to 'Christianise' fairystory & then claim it was 'Christian' all along. Smith is a step away from that, back to what Faery had been, but the Faery of Smith is still not the Fairie of tradition, & my question is why did he want to convince us it was?
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Was it to convince us, or to show us an example of an historical authenticity? I lean towards the former... but why?
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come on Davem - give
