[Mänwe]

Rhod I would point out that his study of the Ring lore was earlier than you think and the time at which he made the ring (if indeed he forged it) is a little complex. The One Ring and the three Elven rings of power were forged in the Second Age c.1600, as I am sure you are aware.

”It was a strange chance, that being angered by his insolence Gandalf chose this way of showing to Saruman his suspicion that desire to possess them had begun to enter into his policies and his study of the lore of the Rings;” – Unfinished Tales, (iii)Concerning Gandalf, Saruman and the Shire [My bold]

The meeting took place 2851 of the Third Age,

“2851 The White Council meets. Gandalf urges an attack on Dol Guldur. Saruman overrules him. Saruman begins to search near the Gladden Fields.”- Appendix B, The Tale of Years (Chronology of the Westlands)

This is one hundred and eighty two years since his making of Orthanc his own and the attack on Dol Guldur. Although this maybe sufficient time for him to make a ring, who is to say he did not forge it in the intervening 77 years from then to the escape of Gandalf from Orthanc where he saw the ring upon his finger. This would however place him in Orthanc.

There are conflicting dates as to when Saruman occupied it.

“2953 Saruman withdraws to Isengard, which he takes as his own, and fortifies it.” - Appendix B, The Tale of Years (Chronology of the Westlands)

This then would shorten the time span to only 65 years in which he could have forged it before Gandalf saw it upon his finger. Or conversely a greater time before then and before his taking up of Orthanc in which he could have forged it.

Thus the date of the council, and the reference to his study of the Ring, he may well have forged it long before such a time, perhaps even before he came to Middle Earth.

davem and narfforc I concur with your points on the matter of their ‘form’.

Findegil, perhaps my suggestion above goes in part to suggest an answer to your query. It is however likely that as has been highlighted already he gained knowledge of forging also from Aule, who he was a Maia too.

Fordim, the Ithryn Luin past into the East, there were many races other than orcs in the east, there were Variags, Dwarves, Avari and men, it could have been any or even all. What do you think?

Bethberry I would counter that point by raising the existence of the Istari and the Valar.Are we to dismiss the Valar as 'Gods' and Eru as 'God', who created Middle Earth in his likeness and to his design. Thus the inhabitants are following his 'protocol'.And the Istari are messengers of the Valar, thus could be seen as priests. They extol the virtue of the Valar and that of 'goodness', this is a religion, its leaders the Valar. Therefore ultimately 'sin' is certainly a word that can be used. Would you agree?

As for the reason of the ring being forged have you considered that it may have been in emulation of Sauron; and out of jealously of Narya given to Gandalf. I am sure we can all quote parts of text that show Saruman’s jealousy for the ring, as well as the fact that Saruman feared Gandalf and knew him to be the stronger. Perhaps this ring was an attempt to prove to himself and to Gandalf that he was the better.

“Saruman soon became jealous of Gandalf, and this rivalry turned at last to a hatred, the deeper for being concealed, and the more bitter in that Saruman knew in his heart that the Grey Wanderer had the greater strength, and the greater influence upon the dwellers in Middle-earth,…”- Unfinished Tales, (iii)Concerning Gandalf, Saruman and the Shire

Comments?