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Originally Posted by Kuruharan
I don't see how it would be possible to do so.
These are all merely your opinions, which are in stark and direct contradiction to the expressed opinion of the author of the works. You can certainly argue with him about anything you like, but once you start disagreeing with things he says would have happened in the story you are no longer talking about his works, you are talking about yours.
Again, I'm just completely failing to see how that statement admits of any other possible interpretation than only Gandalf could master the One Ring. The "might be expected" clause only reinforces the idea that even in that case it is not a sure thing that Gandalf could win, but Gandalf is the only one who had even a chance of winning.
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If Gandalf might be the only one expected to master the Ring, WHY? What is the real reason? Why then did Tolkien write about Saruman coming in for the Ring, if he had no chance of wielding its powers? The whole point of Saruman turning to evil would almost seem pointless, unless he was truly in allegiance with Sauron & hoped to secure the Ring for him. I think if asked, Tolkein would admit that Elrond, Galadriel & perhaps Saruman WERE capable of wielding the ring, with time.
If Sauron knew that only Gandalf could challenge him with the Ring, would it have not been wise to deal with him before turning to the siege of Gondor?