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Originally Posted by Fordim Hedgethistle
Can someone please explain to me why speculating about what Gandalf said is somehow less compelling or convincing than speculating about what Sauron thought?
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I am quite happy to accept that Gandalf has got it right. And Sauron thinking that Saruman had captured the Ringbearer is wholly consistent with what Gandalf says, namely that:
1. Sauron wants the Hobbit for something more than information.
2. Sauron wants the Hobbit urgently.
3. Sauron's mind is filled with the voice and the face of the Hobbit.
4. Sauron has made an error that will take some time to rectify.
Add to that the natural interpretation of Sauron's use of the word "it", particularly (as Boromir88 notes) after having addressed Pippin personally using the word "we".
So, speculation it may be. But it is speculation based firmly upon what we are told.
In any event, no one asserting that Sauron did not believe Pippin to be the Ringbearer has put forward any convincing explanation as to why Sauron (to Gandalf's mind) would be so obsessed with this Hobbit and why he would want him so urgently, if not only for information.
The suggestion that he anticipated Pippin's arrival at Barad-Dur so eagerly simply because he wanted another torture victim is hardly credible.