Bringing it back, I think it's important.
I'm still interested in this discrepancy between the books. Why would the Silmarillion fail to record Gollum? Could it be that *
gasp* the chances of such a creature surviving really are non-existant? It's a wonder so many people have believed it. How has Frodo gotten away with this for so long?
Patrons of
The Warg and Warg Rider Appreciation Thread are familiar with Baggins' anti-Warg propoganda. Is there any malice in his creation of the spook 'Gollum'? What was Frodo trying to achieve?
And do feel free to speculate further about Bill Ferny. That is one question that was never answered to full satisfaction.
