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Originally Posted by SpM
Are these transgressions against “absolute moral truths” or exceptions to them?
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I think that the quote I gave previously on post #
6 applies in these cases; a deed is not a sin, depending on the intention of the doer. While the case of Eowyn, as depicted in LotR, may seem a little morally ambiguous, or at least more so than Bilbo's, in the HoME XII version of the Tale of Years, credit is given too to her love of her father:
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Originally Posted by 3018
She for love of the King rode in disguise with the Rohirrim and was with him when he fell.
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Originally Posted by Beth
And it is the appalling, abject, humiliating contemptibleness which they apply to the word 'sin' which is/would be so out of place in Middle-earth, despite as you say the moral universe it entails.
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Then again, even in LotR we have Frodo all to eager to deal death to Gollum for his wicked deeds, something which Gandalf thoroughly disapproves. Although Frodo is far more likeable than his real world counterparts, in both realms we find opinions which are extremely ..."unchristian", if I may say so; good enough that there are other points of referrence - Gandalf in the books, and true (as in positive) spiritual teachings, in our world. And may I note that Frodo changed deeply from the time of the "Shadow of the Past "to the time when it became crystal clear that Gollum will rob him (about "Mount Doom"); he spared Gollum's life, against what would seem better judgement, which defines true pity.