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Originally Posted by Kuruharan
Are we supposing that the kings had greater control over the Lords?
As I said above, societies where power (in this case basically reduced to who has ultimate control over the military force) is broadly spread at the top do not generally go forth and conquer empires (at the moment I can't think of a single historical instance where such a society did so, but am open to examples).
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I assume you mean 'feudal' by the above description? Otherwise, the 20th century is rife with examples of democracies demolishing empires. I suppose the Crusades are a different kettle of ...... 'fish' ..... than this too....