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Originally Posted by Lalwendė
Why is it 'erroneous at best'?
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To posit this Jungian psychological perspective as that which Tolkien
really was talking about, is erroneous at best because one would be saying that Tolkien was most concerned about a particular psychological process, whereas his mythopoeia is far richer than that. I am not, however, saying that one cannot find parallels in Tolkien's works from Jungian psychological perspectives.
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And what is it 'at worst'?
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I could offer my own opinion, but I prefer not to speculate.