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Originally Posted by The Squatter of Amon Rűdh
I'm inclined to treat the connection under discussion as extremely suspect.
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So then, an answer to my first question, of when Tolkien created the word, has been suggested.
But what of my second question? The connection is still easily and plausibly made by many, many readers. Tolkien's comments in the Forward takes pains to dismiss the allegorical reading of LotR as "about" World War II. Yet why did he still use a word which would suggest and support this kind of false allegory?
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Originally Posted by davem
Which is not to say that he didn't smile to himself about the similarities....
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So, was he having his cake and eating it too? He wouldn't be the first writer to play tricksome.