[The Saucepan Man]

Originally Posted by davem

To argue that 'homosexuality occurs within the human race in the primary world, therefore it must occur among humans in the secondary world' is equivalent to arguing that because Ents exist in the secondary world they must also exist in the primary world'.

Faulty logic, as Rikae has pointed out. This is akin to saying that because there are taxis in both London and New York, the Statue of Liberty must exist in London.

Originally Posted by davem

Again, where in any of Tolkiens' M-e writings is there a relationship that could be interpreted as having a homosexual/lesbian aspect?

I would ask you, in turn, where in any of Tolkien's writings there is anything which would definitively rule out the existence of homosexuality in M-e (or even make it improbable).

Originally Posted by davem

This is absolutely not (as far as I'm concerned) a 'moral' question.Its simply a question of whether 'X' existed in M-e. And the conclusion I come to is that there is no evidence that Tolkien 'imported' that aspect of the human into his world.

The question is the same for me. And I come to the conclusion that there is no evidence that he excluded it.

Originally Posted by davem

I think its clear from the article I linked to & from the Laws & Customs essay, that Elves did not have casual sex, that the sexual act, if consensual, was equivalent to marriage, & that sex within marriage was principally, if not solely, for procreation. Hence, Elves are heterosexual by nature, & asexual by inclination.

Yet the other examples of the occurence of sexuality in Tolkien's works that you give make it clear that, for humans, sexuality was not simply about procreation. Clearly, therefore, human sexuality may not be equated with Elvish sexuality.