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Originally Posted by The Saucepan Man
Given that these events are recorded primarily by Hobbits and given the 'model' used for Hobbit society, that is quite possible. It is, however, not the only alternative. Indeed, the more likely explanation, as others have noted, is that it was not mentioned because it was simply not relevant to the story.
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Well, only TH & LotR (& not the whole of that) was recorded by Hobbits. Much of the rest was recorded by Elves & Men & only translated by Bilbo, & some was added to the Red Book by later scribes like Findegil. It still strikes me that the least difficult (in more ways than the obvious one) opition is to assume that Tolkien did not conceive of homosexuality existing in M-e.
I think we've agreed that, given the nature of Elvish sexuality, homosexuality did not exist among Elves. If we accept your argument re Hobbits, its clear that either homosexuality did not exist in their society - or it was not something that was acceptable, & thus we introduce into Tolkien's rural idyll the concept of gay Hobbits having to remain in the closet, & not admit the truth about their sexuality.
We still end up with gays in M-e living a lie & existing a second class citizens - because if they weren't, if homosexuality was 'acceptable' then it would have been mentioned - if only in passing. It depends really on whether one wants to introduce (or I'd say invent without a shred of supporting evidence) that whole new level of lying, hiding, ostracism, persecution, denial & general burying ones' head in the sand among all the races of M-e. Personally, I find that way too much hassle...