[narfforc]

This contradiction is noted by Hammond and Scull in A Readers Companion however they offer no explanation. Having read a bit more of this I am sure Tolkien changed his mind at some stage and may have left in Gandalfs statement by mistake. In HoME vol12 under The Tale of Years of The Third Age for the date:

c.1350 Evil things begin to multiply again. Orcs increase rapidly and delve in the Misty Mountains, and attack the Dwarves. The Ringwraiths stir once more. The chief of these, the wielders of the Nine Rings, becomes the Witch-king of the realm of Angmar in the north beyond Arnor, and makes war on the remnants of the Dunedain.

In Appendix B (The Tale of Years) of The Lord of the Rings for the date:

c.1300 Evil things begin to multiply again. Orcs increase in the Misty Mountains and attack the Dwarves. The Nazgul reappear. The chief of these comes north to Angmar. The Periannath migrate westwards; many settle at Bree.


So quite clearly from the published version Tolkien had edited out the word 'wielders' which implied that the Nazgul held the Nine.

Wield (Hold and Use).

Another piece of editing occurs during The Siege of Gondor HoME vol8 (The War of the Ring)in this form:

The Nazgul came once more, slaves of the Nine Rings, and to each, since now they were utterly subject to his will, their Lord had given again that ring of power that he had used of old.

This was replaced in RotK by: The Nazgul came again, and as their Dark Lord now grew and put forth his strength, so their voices, which uttered only his will and his malice, were filled with evil and horror.

Once again Tolkien is moving away from the Nazgul holding their Rings.