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Old 07-21-2008, 10:32 PM   #36
Morthoron
Curmudgeonly Wordwraith
 
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Originally Posted by Bêthberry View Post
One of the really interesting things about this comparison to Babel is, I think, the absence of its linguistic consequence in Tolkien's work. His Legendarium has no mythological moment to explain or justify linguistic variation. Was this a case of his professional life influencing his creative life: the career philologist who devoted his time to the historical development of language could not imagine/write an episode which attributed language diversity to something other than historical change?
That is why I don't think the Tower of Babel analogy is applicable. Because Tolkien was a philologist, his languages bare the subtle variations of time and place. Languages do change (the Gothic strains of the Northmen of Greenwood are altered eventually into the pseudo-Anglo-Saxon of Rohan, for instance), but there is a logic to the variances, such as the long sundering of two or three groups of the same race (the differences between Quenyan and Sindarin and Silvan), and the use of the Westron tongue as the lingua franca of the 3rd Age (like Latin, French and English examples in history). Frankly, Tolkien loved words too much to plop in a rather simplistic fable to explain away such a rich and evocative branch of learning; or to put it another way, weren't languages, in fact, the wellspring of all his works?
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