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Originally Posted by Formendacil
Gordis is not arguing at all, as I understand it, that the Witch-king's personal name was Angmar, but merely demonstrating that this type of usage is made use of by Tolkien in reference to the Witch-king: that is, he is referred to by the land he is identified with as lord. In the case of the Kingdom of Angmar, this is incontrovertible. Personally, I find Gordis's reasoning for a like reference where "Morgűl" is made use of in the text to be convincing.
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I am aware of that usage. The fact that he was the 'Lord of Angmar' because he ruled that
region would seem to weaken the case for Minas Morgul being his later eponymous capital city rather than strengthening it.
As to who used the name 'Minas Morgul' first, Gandalf called the Black Captain 'a great king and sorceror of old'. I see no problem with the view that it was so named by the Gondorians, who were well aware of the nature of the creatures in command there.
Another question, having to do with this passage:
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(Frodo) knew that the Ring would only betray him, and that he had not, even if he put it on, the power to face the Morgul-king-- not yet.
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TTT The Stairs of Cirith Ungol
The Morgul-king? Why not 'face King Morgul'?