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Old 01-31-2010, 01:33 PM   #10
Sarumian
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I agree with the view that Sauron could feel some sort of satisfaction knowing about his enemies' fear and hatred. Having said that, his emissars were, probably, allowed to use this name when it was conveniet. In this respect he could also compare himself to his predecessor, Melkor, who had been known to his enemies as Morgoth.

Why The Mouth used it? I think, he wanted to make an impression, he could read in his counterparts' minds and that he was aware of what they thought. He also wanted to show such a level of confidence, at which this name doesn't make any harm neither to his mission, nor to his Master. Can this be another reason?


I also suppose that in line with 'The Great Eye' and 'Him', Sauron's servants could use the title 'The Dark Lord', as it had been written on The Ring, for it was respectful and precise at the same time. Wasn't it typical to use the tytle of a monarch instead of his/her name in autocratic states (e. g. the king, the queen, the emperor said or did something, not Henry, or Catherine etc.)?

Last edited by Sarumian; 02-28-2011 at 11:49 AM.
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