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Originally Posted by Bom Tombadillo
As someone with a bipolar relative, whose most recent and, hopefully, last episode I got to experience the peak of, I can say that Melkor's behavior does not remind me of someone bipolar.
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Right. Those who are bipolar are not evil. They do not perpetrate cruelty and impose domination over others; at the worst of the manic phase they can be aggressive, intolerant, or intrusive but those traits are mild in comparison to what Melkor intends. They also cannot control their own "swings" nor are they motivated by malice. In contrast, Melkor's behaviour is almost always premeditated, even when it is influenced by his own cruelty and malice. I don't think he is ever referred to as "fey", as is Feanor in "Of the Return of the Noldor."
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Originally Posted by Sarumian
I don't see a crime in finding likelyhood between two things, but for me it's rather a matter of further questions about roots and reasons (poor old Smeagol ) And if I wanted to work something out of this finding, I would rather ask why Tolkien used those characteristics typical for the disorder to describe the Father of All Troubles?
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I never said it was a crime to compare, but that the comparison was not fitting or appropriate. Unlike Melkor, people who are mentally ill are not held responsible, criminally responsible, for their behaviour. And also Melkor does not have, as others have said here, characteristics of bipolar behaviour.