Quote:
Originally Posted by Radtech51
It's just my opinion but I don't think he was using an inversion. The statement is very clear and to the point leaving very little room for interpretation. Also I got the impression that when he was talking about the greater rings of power he wanted to make it to the point and keep it simple because he didn't really want to be talking about their locations.
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*Sigh!*
The discussion continues until
http://forum.barrowdowns.com/showthr...201#post676201 which makes it plain that I don’t like the explanation I presented either.
But what of that?
Tolkien twice elsewhere in
The Lord of the Rings and once in
Letters and twice in
Unfinished Tales claims that the nine Rings possessed by mortals had returned to Sauron by that time. See
http://oakroadsystems.com/genl/ringfaq.htm and search on “C7.” for a complete discussion.
The mention in the chapter “The Council of Elrond” is either to be interpreted according to my suggestion or it is in error.