[Belegorn]

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Sauron takes out Eregion and then turns to drive back the dwarves.
During this time Elrond flees North.

Actually, after Sauron sacked Eregion and could not find what he was looking for [that being "the chief object of Sauron's assuault, the House of the Mírdain, where were their smithies and their treasures." -249, but not finding all the Rings Sauron tortured Celebrimbor to learn of their whereabouts.] & he could not get Celebrimbor to tell, he "turned upon the forces of Elrond" [p. 250] He was only able turn on the Dwarves after his "host had been attacked in the rear" [250] by them as Elrond "would indeed have been overwhelmed" [250] if not for their intervention. Interestingly this is basically the same force you claim was able to keep Sauron himself from invading Rivendell, the same Sauron who not only bore the One Ring, but would surely have overthrown Rivendell had he gotten the Ring back in the 3rd Age. Elrond did not even have Vilya at this point. In any case, let's continue.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

He heads North with the bulk of his army to Rivendell.
Elves and men in line of his march start fleeing to Rivendell.

After leaving south-eastern Eriador [check a map] he does set out to conquer Eriador, most of which is to the North of where he is which is why anyone running from him would probably flee to the north, as he is coming from the South, and Rivendell being way up to the N-E of the region. But Rivendell is not his goal.

"Sauron's immediate purpose was to take Lindon" [250]. Why Lindon? Because at Lindon "he believed that he had the most chance of seizing one, or more, of the Three Rings".

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Gets to Rivendell with the bulk of his army and puts it under siege.
Sends out other troops to take areas in Eriador whilst he sieges Rivendell.

The siege is placed on Rivendell so that he can at once set out to his immediate purpose "to take Lindon" and to avoid being taken by surprise from his rear again.

"leaving a strong detachment to contain Elrond and prevent him coming down upon his rear."

It is when he "marched west towards the lands of Gil-galad" that they "ravaged as they went"[ 250]. They also ravaged the lands as he moved from the south back up into the north of Eriador. Again, since fleeing north is a logical thing to do for the Elves as Sauron was coming from the south of Eriador to "gain the mastery of Eriador" [remember, most of Eriador was to the north anyways from his southern position].

Originally Posted by cellurdur

After a year or so realises taking Rivendell is too hard and would have a better chance with the rings.

This is the same Elrond whose forces he could have destroyed earlier. Not only that Elrond is not even bearing a Ring of Power and Sauron has the One. Also we know that Sauron could have destroyed Rivendell in the 3rd Age as well. So how is it that with the Ring, being there in person himself, with his armies he can't do it now, against a force we are told not so long ago he would have overwhelmed?

Originally Posted by cellurdur

In addition Tolkien meant to develop how Glorfindel was specifically sent by the Valar to help Elrond deal with the wars against Sauron in the second age.

And they got routed by Sauron. If not for the Elves and Dwarves that attacked them from behind Elrond "would indeed have been overwhelmed".

My point is that Sauron

Invades Eriador, to take the Rings
Fights off Elrond and Celeborn until he sacks Eregion "he was able to join his force to that of Elrond they could not return to Eregion, for Sauron's host was far greater than theirs, great enough BOTH to hold them off and closely to invest Eregion." [p. 249]
Chases Elrond and his forces which he could have destroyed had not Elves and Dwarves from Khazad-dûm and Lórinand saved him. "He would indeed have been overwhelmed had not Sauron's host been attacked in the rear" [p. 250]
Leaves Elrond and chases his saviours to the mines of Moria. "turned upon the Dwarves and the Elves of Lórinand, whom he drove back"
Heads north, not to lay a siege on Rivendell, but because most of Eriador is to the north which is where he has to go if he plans on gaining the mastery of it. No clear statement is made that he went North to lay a siege on Gondor, other then that he laid siege to it in order to go west and prevent an attack from his rear. Otherwise it is quite clear that when Sauron went to invade Eriador he, "turned north and made at once for Eregion" [p. 249]
He gathers his forces together since he really wants the Rings and leaves a strong force behind to prevent an attack from the rear.
They march west continuing their assault on Eriador to get the Rings from Lindon.
They are routed when the Númenóreans arrive and his force at Imladris is trapped between Elrond and Gil-galad's forces and destroyed.
Sauron barely makes it out.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Physical battle is not the only indicator of power. Curufin could capture Luthien, but she was leagues above him in power. Nor did Sauron take out Finrod and Beren by himself in armed combat. How can you say having the help of a very powerful Numenorean Lord like Elendil did not matter?

I never said physical engagement alone indicates one's power. You're trying to act like I'm comparing apples and oranges. You made a point that Glorfindel took out a Balrog because he is a strong Elf. I said that there are also other great Elves who could fight Maia and win, as in the case of Gil-galad, and Ecthelion. You clearly say, "Glorfindel even before his death was an elf of great power and a Balrog slayer" and I tell you that others have fought Maia as well and won. But when I say this you claim I'm trying to say physical fighting is the only indicator of power. Not so, I'm saying that Glorfindel is not the only Elf who is a Balrog slayer and that Gil-galad took out the greatest of Melkor's servants. The point is how did Gil-galad take out the Balrog, through the power of his mind, spells? He used the tools of war and engaged in physical combat with it and he was not the only Elf to engage a Maia and win this way. That is my point, not that physical strength is the only indicator of power. That, it seems, you pulled out of thin air.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

The difference between Glorfindel and the others is that he became MUCH more powerful afterwards.

Where you and I differ in this is that you claim as a result he is the most powerful Elf in M-E at this point. I believe Galadriel is the superior by any standard, and that there are possibly others as well. Btw, just because other Elves did NOT GET to kill a Blarog or some Maia does not mean they couldn't. Please keep that in mind as you give Glorfindel the title, Balrog slayer.

It appears to me you are trying to bring various excuses up to bolster your arguments. Sauron was also beaten in tandem by Luthien and Huan earlier in the first Age, and it is you I believe, who believes Luthien to be the most powerful of all the Elves. So we have Luthien + Huan [The Lay of Leithian; 2726-89] beat Sauron, and Gil-galad + Elendil beat a bolstered Sauron with the One Ring. Why are you trying to belittle Gild-galad's efforts? Sure Elendil is more likely than not a beast of a Man, but Huan is no cupcake either.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

A great deal of power is needed to fight a Maiar of any sort and that is only three elves were able to do so

3 powerful Elves got the opportunity to do so. Again, I want to make it clear, that unlike you, I do not believe that because some other powerful Elf did not get the opportunity does not mean they could not. One of the most incredible things to me was how Fëanor was able to fight against MULTIPLE Balrogs and was only stopped when Gothmog knocked him senseless. He fought hard and long in that affair, fearing not his enemies.

"Long he fought on, and undismayed, though he was wrapped in fire and wounded with many wounds" [Sil., ch. 13, p. 125] Though he did not win, and died of his wounds after his sons saved him, he and he alone " was made the mightiest... of all the Children of Ilúvatar" [ch. 11, p. 112]

Originally Posted by cellurdur

defeating someone physically does not mean you are of equal power

I said that? I do not recall. If I did I was surely mistaken because I know I do not think that because someone beats another that it necessarily means they are more powerful. Many get their day in the Sun. Éowyn & Merry defeated the Witch-king for instance.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Galadriel the mightiest of the elves, who remained is still not likely to be able to defeat Gil-galad in a battle despite being a great warrior herself.

Possible. She is compared in ways to Manwë and with Melian, but I'm of the opinion that even in her youth she was trained to fight, did fight, and was extremely skilled at it. I think, personally, should could have fought with Gil-galad in a purely physical level [although one needs mental toughness in such endeavors] and won even though we are generally given the view that his was not necessarily her thing, which funnily enough also applies to Sauron.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

it implies he was

No it doesn't. Galadriel was. You even mentioned that of the Elves who remained in the 3rd Age from the 2nd [which included Glorfindel because he clearly remained] she was the most powerful.

"she was the mightiest and fairest of all the Elves that remained in Middle-earth" [Sil., p 370]

Originally Posted by cellurdur

he seems to be the most powerful

I disagree, that is, "added with the all the other bits" concerning Galadriel. He is powerful, do not get me wrong, but I think there are still others who are like that who "against both the Seen and the Unseen they have great power" FotR, Bk. 2, ch. 1 p. 269]

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Other indications that Gil-galad was the most powerful is that he is given command of the forces of Rivendell

I'm not sure what you mean here, but clearly there may be captains who have mightier officers in their train. Take for instance Glorfindel and Elrond. Was not Elrond in command of forces that included Glorfindel, sent by Gil-galad to aid Celebrimbor? Don't you think the latter is mightier than the former?

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Glorfindel did not remain in Middle-Earth

Yes he did. He came back around 1200 of the 2nd Age probably and remained in the 3rd Age. In fact the portion in which Galadriel is said to be the mightiest says "all the Elves" not just of the Eldar who came from Aman.