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The main objection to the above techniques would seem to be that they are completely out of character for a Hobbit. However, what if the particular Hobbit that wrote that section had before him a song made in Rohan as a eulogy for King Théoden?
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In that case you are having to hypothesise things that are not in the book or stated by Tolkien to support the change in language.
My case is simple, in the book there is a line about a Fox's thoughts on Hobbits. There are numerous examples of relatively childlike writing somewhat akin to the Hobbit. Then you have the near constant examples of Lo, Behold and the inverted sentences that Bethberry has mentioned.
Tolkien's approach is that the books were written by Hobbits, and from evidence in the book, largely written by the same author, Frodo, at the same time, after the Quest has ended.
That being the case it simply makes no logical sense for the two radically different styles of writing to have been written by the same hand. It doesn't hold to the concept that Tolkien has tried to maintain.