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I agree with what you say about the purpose of the stylistic changes. As the somewhat modern Hobbits enter and learn about the world of the Elves and the ancient kingdoms of the Dunedain, the change in style matches the change in content.
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Well if that were the case would anyone like to explain why the same style of writing and language is not used to describe the realm of Lorien or Rivendell, both of which are far older than the people in Gondor. Despite your statement it is a fact that the Elves do not use anywhere near as much archaic language as the men of Gondor/Rohan.
Who would be more likely to use archaic language? Someone who has been alive for thousands of years and remembers the glories of the 1st age or someone who has lived for a mere fifty?
Your explanation does not stack up to the facts.