[Belegorn]

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Elrond was not an Elf. He is never referred to as an Elf. He is always Elrond the Halfelven. Nor are his sons or daughter called elves.

He is an Elf because the Half-elven were given a choice, ""At the end of the First Age the Valar gave to the Half-elven an irrevocable choice to which KINDRED they would BELONG. Elrond CHOSE to BE of Elven-kind" And those 2 fates were that of Men or of Elves. Elrond chose "to be of Elven-kind", whether you think so or not. In Letter #153 Tolkien says,

"the Half-elven have a power of (irrevocable) choice, which may be delayed but not permanently, which kin's FATE they will SHARE. Elros chose to be a King and 'longaevus' but mortal, so all his descendants are mortal, and of a specially noble race... Elrond chose to be AMONG THE ELVES. His children- with a renewed Elvish strain... have to make their choices... The end of his sons, Elladan and Elrohir, is not told,: they delay their choice and remain for a while."

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Nothing here says he was an elf.

Sure it does. This was what the whole problem on Númenor was. They wanted to change their fate from that of Men, which the Half-elven Elros chose, to that of Elves, which the Half-elven Elrond chose. He is referred to as Half-elven because of his ancestry, "in them alone the line of heroic chieftains of the Edain in the First Age was preserved; and after the fall of Gil-galad the lineage of the High-elven Kings was also in Middle-earth only represented by their descendants." [App. A] Are those of Elven-kind Elves or not? What are they Dwarf, Man, Orc, Troll, Hobbit?

Originally Posted by cellurdur

He chose to have the life of the Elves, but he remained one of the Peredhil.

He was Peredhel because of his ancestry but he clearly chose, as his brother was given leave to do, to choose a fate that of Elves or of Men. He chose that of Elves and his brother that of Men. So even though by ancestry they were both Half-elven, the one became a Man, the other an Elf. He chose the fate of the Elves, which his brother's direct descendants wanted, but they had the fate of Men which their direct ancestor Elros chose. Was Elros a Man having chosen the fate of Men? Was Elrond an Elf having chose the fate of Elves? To you no because they were Half-elven. I say yes, but they were referred to as Half-elven due to their ancestry, not because one was not an Elf and the other not a Man.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Notice how the Sons of Elrond are mentioned separately from Legolas the Elf.

That depends on if they had chosen their fate yet which I do not think they had nor had Arwen. It is said, "to the children of Elrond a choice was also appointed" [App. A] To be as Elves or as Men, one Doom or the other. Your assumption is that when Elrond's sons are mentioned with Legolas that they had chosen their fate at that time, "The end of his sons, Elladan and Elrohir, is not told,: they delay their choice and remain for a while." [Letter #153]. Do you know this? If so please explain. In PoM-E it is said, "These children were three parts Elven-race, but the doom spoken at their birth was that they should live even as Elves so long as their father remained in Middle-earth; but if he departed they should have then the choice either to pass over the Sea with him, or to become mortal, if they remained behind." It seems in this case their choice had to be made before a certain point. Do you know of a point in the 3rd Age when they decided to choose their fate so that you could say "notice how the Sons of Elrond are mentioned separately from Legolas the Elf" implying that they either did not choose the fate of Elves, or that if they had they were still not Elves.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Even Aragorn is not strictly a pure man

Yet still a Man never-the-less. The Elven strain in Men certainly uplifted the race of Men, "The entering into Men of the Elven-strain is indeed represented as part of a Divine Plan for the ennoblement of the Human Race" [Letter#153], but they were still Men, the Doom of Men was theirs because they were Men. Elros though Half-elven due to his ancestry, was a Man.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

The difference

Difference aside, was this not the same group that Sauron was about to destroy before he left the pursuit of them?

Originally Posted by cellurdur

it would have been one of the last if not the very last place to fall

Please keep geography in mind when you make such declarations lest someone suppose that Rivendell was so great and powerful it would be the last place to be taken. Rivendell is west of the Misty Mountains, most of Sauron's enemies are to the east of them, including Gondor and Lorien.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Except you ignore that his first goal was to gain the mastery of Eriador.

No I didn't, to get through where he wanted to go he and his army "ravaged as they went".

Originally Posted by cellurdur

You don't just leave a large force undefended at your back.

He didn't. You're trying to tell me that Sauron's purpose here was to go up north to siege Elrond at his new position because Elrond was his greatest threat. The text makes no explicit statement to that effect, such as this one in which he entered Eriador &, "turned north and made at once for Eregion" [UT, Bk. 2, ch. 4, p. 249] It is said however that the purpose of Sauron's siege was "to contain Elrond and prevent him coming down upon his rear" [p. 250]. The great General Turenne noted, "Make few sieges and give many battles. When once you have made your army superior to that of your enemy, by the number and quality of your troops, which you have nearly done already by the battle of Rocroi; when you are master of the open country, villages will be of as much service as the fortified towns; but it is thought much more honorable to take a fortress... If the King of Spain had spent as much money and men in forming armies, as he has spent in making sieges and fortresses, he would now be the most powerful monarch in the world." [Marshall Turenne, ch. 5] Sauron's siege was meant to "contain Elrond and prevent him coming down upon his rear" [UT, bk2, ch. 4 p. 250] while he cleared a path through Eriador to get the Rings from Lindon.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

says he ravaged the lands first as he was heading North to Rivendell

Yes, good job clearing the lands as you march ahead doing as the text says, "Sauron attempted to gain the mastery of Eriador" [UT, p. 250] Where does it say he headed "north to Rivendell"?

Originally Posted by cellurdur

whilst ignoring his biggest threat in the area

Where is it said that Elrond was his biggest threat, the very same threat he could have wiped out, "He would indeed have been overwhelmed" [p. 250]

Originally Posted by cellurdur

it takes him 3 years to eventually invade Lindon

I don't know that. What I do know is that he came to the borders of Lindon where he "reached the line of the River Lhûn... Gil-galad and the Númenóreans were holding the Lhûn in desperate defence of the Grey Havens, when in the very nick of time the great armament of Tar-Minastir came in; and Sauron's host was heavily defeated and driven back." [UT, p. 250-51] Tell me where it is that you learned of Sauron actually invading Lindon.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

you seem to think it would have happened at the drop of the hat.

No I don't. Pay attention. What I do think is that Sauron left, "a strong detachment to contain Elrond and prevent him coming down upon his rear." [p.250] That was the purpose of the siege. I do not think the siege's purpose was to overrun Rivendell. I think "Sauron's immediate purpose was to take Lindon" [250] which is why he ravaged its lands to gain the mastery in it, as he moved north then west to clear the way to Lindon.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Sauron obviously got impatient with the siege and tried to take Lindon immediately.

If you lay a siege to take a city, town, fortress or whatever and get impatient, you don't leave it to move on. Your impatience would actually impel you to storm the place under siege prematurely resulting in a foolish loss of men while the place is still untaken. That is one of the dangers of a siege. Again, unlike your projecting onto me the idea that Sauron would have taken Rivendell "at the drop of the hat", I think that the siege was meant "to contain Elrond and prevent him coming down upon his rear" [p. 250]

Originally Posted by cellurdur

open battle is not the same as defending a strong hold out

[sarcasm]Yes and any man of war worth his salt wastes his time trying to take a place by laying siege to it when his object is something else.[sarcasm] There are only 2 ways of fighting, directly and indirectly, the later of which has inexhaustible methods and these need not apply to being holed up in some fortress. Whether on the high ground, in Rivendell, or at some narrow defile if Sauron's purpose was to destroy Elrond it would have been done. It took him 2 years to lay Eregion waste; you're going to tell me he was only going to give up after one year of besieging Imladris while when he was at Eregion he had enemies at his back?

Originally Posted by cellurdur

You have Sauron spending years fighting small groups of Elves, whilst he ignored his biggest threat

Could you please provide the references, all if possible, where Elrond is referred to ever as Sauron's biggest threat? Thank you.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Where is it implied that Gil-galad was greater than Glorfindel at the fall of Gondolin?

?????????????????? Explain yourself. I don't get it.

On another note, as you will get into later, Galadriel is said to be with her uncle, "the greatest of the Eldar in Valinor" which would include Glorfindel, assuming he was born at this point. So whether in Gondolin or in Aman she was the greater of the 2.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

When you face a foe like a Balrog it is always a spiritual battle as well as a physical one

Hmmm.... interesting. So with one Maia it's a spiritual battle [of course in your defense of Glorfindel you have to bring this up] as well, but with the other [Gil-galad] it is not. Didn't Sauron basically fight Finrod with magic [Lay of Leithian 2165-2222]? Why all of a sudden the a foe of the same class who has been known to employ spells and the like in his battles is stripped of his ways and means when he fights Gil-galad and Elendil?

Originally Posted by cellurdur

the difference between Glorfindel and Ecthelion is that Glorfindel was then made much more powerful on his return

The same would apply to Ecthelion had he returned. The reborn, "are stronger, having greater mastery of their bodies and being more patient of griefs." [MR, p. 222] So the difference is that one came back to M-E. If both had come back Ecthelion too should have been bolstered. Do you deny this? Otherwise what do you mean by, "the difference between Glorfindel and Ecthelion is that Glorfindel was then made much more powerful on his return"?

Originally Posted by cellurdur

You ignore that Glorfindel already one of the most powerful elves

No I didn't. Where did I say he was not one of the stronger Elves? How am I saying he is not one of the more powerful Elves? Projecting again are you? Let's make a deal. You stop saying that I said things I didn't, unless you quote me, and I won't have to tell you that you're lying.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Other elves have tried and failed including Feanor and Fingon amongst others.

Both were JUMPED. Come on man are you serious? Let me quote the passages for you as you seem to be lost on this.

"At last Fingon stood alone with his guard dead about him; and he fought with Gothmog, until another Balrog came behind and cast a thong of fire about him. Then Gothmog hewed him with his black axe... and they beat him into the dust with their maces" [Sil., ch. 20, p. 236]

"Long he fought on, and undismayed, though he was wrapped in fire and wounded with many wounds... the Balrogs left him and departed to Angband." [Sil., ch. 13, p. 125]

Originally Posted by cellurdur

It's you who are trying to downplay the help that Elendil gave.

Lies. I said, "Elendil is more likely than not a beast of a Man". I was saying that Sauron got beat twice, once by Luthien and Huan and the other by Gil-galad and Elendil. I brought Luthien up since you hold her, as far as I know, to be the strongest Elf. So when Gil-galad did it against a bolstered Sauron he should not be belittled for doing so. Sure he and Elendil died but in the end they destroyed Sauron's body. I therefore give Gil-galad credit for the destruction of Sauron, whether he had help in doing so, just as Luthien did in beating him, or not.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Luthien did a little more than just beat Sauron.

She sure did.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Feanor was not alone and there were only ever around 5 Balrogs ever.

Somewhere between 3 and 7. In any case the Balrogs were not alone either when they attacked Fëanor and his small band.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Those are from an early text and things have been rewritten.

So you don't except the Silmarillion, fair enough.

"Feanor was made the mightiest in all parts of body and mind, in valour, in endurance, in beauty, in understanding, in skill, in strength and in subtlety alike, of all the Children of Illuvatar." [Sil, p. 112] <- a text you reject.

"This child is the greatest in gifts that hath arisen or shall arise among the Eldar." [MR, Laws and Customs Among the Eldar, p. 240]

"Aule nameth Feanor the greatest of the Eldar, and in potency that is true." [247]

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Luthien had unmatched power since she was able to put ALL the Balrogs and Morgoth to sleep

Yes she slept them to death and to defeat.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Exactly.

Surely. Then, now, show me where I said defeating someone means you are of equal power. Thanks.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Glorfindel obviously did not remain

So he did not stay from the 2nd to the 3rd Age? Go read the books.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

he died and had to return

But he still stayed after the 2nd Age when he returned. So he in fact did remain in M-E, or was he not in M-E in the 3rd Age?

Originally Posted by cellurdur

All through out LOTR Glorfindel is used as an example of the power of an elf.

This has nothing to do with him remaining in M-E after the 2nd Age into the 3rd. According to you he did not remain. If he did not remain after the 2nd Age he was not in M-E in the 3rd Age, or he left M-E at the end of the 2nd Age and returned with Gandalf and the Istari in the 3rd Age. You say, "Glorfindel is used as an example of the power of an elf" I would say not the only one.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Glorfindel is the elf noted for being the one to storm the black gates

No he isn't. Talk about a misrepresentation of the text. You can quote the part you are talking about in full so everyone can see how off you are on this remark. You will find that piece of text in FotR, bk.2, ch. 3, p. 331.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

but he did have the greater rank

So now you talk about rank, when before the leader had to do with being the most powerful. Which is it? Only where Glorfindel is involved and he is the ranking officer is he the most powerful, however, when anyone else like Elrond has leadership it's based on rank.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

Yes, because most of the elves are dead and how can he have 'remained' if he died and returned?

Because he returned early in the 2nd Age and stayed throughout the 3rd, thus remaining in M-E after the 2nd Age.

Originally Posted by cellurdur

It's not logically possible to remain if you die and go back to Aman.

Well that was in the First Age. He did not remain in the FA because he died and returned in the 2nd. But he did remain in M-E after the 2nd Age and for most of the 2nd.