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I've been thinking about this for some time, too.
If I remember correctly, which hopefully I do since I can't check right now, Isildur cursed them before the Battles of the Last Alliance ('And if the West prove mightier') and so before he had the Ring. For this reason I don't think it had anything to do with it. But even if it did, I don't see why Aragorn should not be able to lift it. The curse holds as long as the oath is unfulfilled, and Aragorn is the only one who can hold it fulfilled.
The curse directly interferes with the plan of Eru. It is borderline necromancy in fact. I cannot believe Isildur, or any child of Eru not in alliance with Morgoth or Sauron, had any kind of power like this.
What I think is possible, and can get me out of this dead end argument, is that Isildur indeed did not curse them: He only uttered the words in anger. But the words were perceived by someone mightier and he was it who put the curse into being. Only Eru comes into consideration here.
This theory, of course, is unprovable. But I think it at least works logically.
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