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Tolkien's use of archaic language is to simulate a culture that no longer exists, not to make his prose more "important" sounding.
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If you write a story set in Ancient Greece do you need to write it in Ancient Greek? Do you even need to write it in a style similar to the way the Ancient Greeks wrote.
A good writer should be able to evoke any era or situation he chooses without needing to change his language forms to support it.