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Originally Posted by cellurdur
I will a more detailed answer later, but I think there are two points I need to bring up.
1. There is no reason to assume that the Sindar and the Noldor have the same culture or ideas when it came to the succession. As we see they have different languages.
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That is certainly a possibility. Although I'm not sure whether such customs would have changed the same way as languages did (if we assume that the changes in the languages of immortals who, on a regular basis, should be able to talk to their great-great-great-great-parents on a regular basis, makes all that much sense).
Another important thing to consider is that Lúthien most certainly embodies the noblest union in the entire history of Arda. Lúthien trumps any Vanya insofar as her status is concerned. If Ingwe is the High-king of all Elves then Lúthien (and Dior) most certainly could make a case to be the rulers/monarchs of Beleriand/Doriath or the high-king/queen of the Sindar.
Melian's special status might very well have changed Lúthien/Dior's status.
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The facts as we have them are that no female has ever claimed the High Queenship of the Noldor, no female has ever been a Queen of the Noldor and no descendant of Finwe through the female line has ever been king either.
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The published Silmarillion seems to refer to Idril as Turgon's heir. I'm not sure whether this comes from JRRT and I'm right now not able to double-check that. However, I'd not be surprised if that was the case. Was Maeglin's desire for Idril not partially caused by his wish to (possibly) succeed Turgon?
The idea that Beren-Lúthien could have inherited Thingol's crown and co-ruled Doriath under other circumstances doesn't seem far-fetched. If so, then Idril and Turgon (and eventually Eärendil) might have been able to do the same. Especially if Turgon had accepted Tuor as his foster son - which he seems to have done, in a sense, when he married Idril to him.