Quote:
Originally Posted by Galin
I don't suppose it at that point, but what I mean is, Tolkien did make a notable change between writing the Balrog-Gandalf encounter and answering this letter, and it changes nothing with respect to explaining that Durin's Bane is a creature from the First Age...
... thus in 1958 or later, the same remains true (or easily can): the conception shifts in Tolkien's mind regarding both works, and with each shift the Balrogs remain consistent.
In other other words: Durin's bane was not a Maia when Tolkien wrote the encounter, same as the other Balrogs in QS > then "DB" was a Maia, so also the Balrogs in QS, at the time this letter was answered. Still consistent.
Then in the later 1950s Tolkien (possibly) begins to question if Maia status is problematic in any way with respect to great numbers in the Elder Days. Too powerful? Or whatever other reason (I still tend to lean toward "too powerful", but as I say, just my opinion so far)...
... so, if so, DB's battle with GS (G. Stormcrow) can remain as written, as arguably, there's nothing necessarily inconsistent about this with respect to Tolkien's question. And if original numbers are to be revised, Tolkien never gets to a full revision of everything in QS however, as we know is true in general, in any case.
So possibly, we get less Balrogs at about the same time when we get Orc-formed Maiar thrown into Morgoth's mix.
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What do you have to offer in support the balrogs were not maia at this point? how did it kill gandalf and give him such trouble? is there something in the published text to suggest this? as far as i am aware tolkiens cosmology was finished and his understanding of balrogs as well.
"For of the
Maiar many were drawn to his splendour in the days of his greatness, and remained in that allegiance down into his darkness; and others he corrupted afterwards to his service with lies and treacherous gifts. Dreadful among these spirits were the Valaraukar, the scourges of fire that in Middle-earth were called the
Balrogs, demons of terror."
Does this text come from after the publishing of LOTR? In the end I think we must go with what Tolien did have, rather than what we think he might have possibly done do you agree? he saw balrogs as maia before the first book of lotr was published and does not see any issues, I dont see reason why we should.