Quote:
Originally Posted by Urwen
I won't reply to that, because it seems like you want this thread to end.  |
People don't usually end threads by asking for thoughts, but you read what you want to read.
What do you want, Urwen? You're upset when people don't post for a while, you're upset when people post. You quote your own questions to bump them up to get more responses, but out of the blue you decide to ignore some responses. Can we just have a
voluntary discussion? Is that too much to ask?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Urwen
Or I can take a third option and say that Meglin was possessed, and hence the actions others saw him do weren't done by him, but Melkor/Sauron controlling his body. He, of course, wrestled the control from them near the end in order to save Earendil, and goad Tuor into slaying him as a form of atonement.
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But would that not imply Morgoth knew about what Earendil meant? Aside from the question of whether possession is possible, it has to have a purpose. If Morgoth had such control over Maeglin, why would he choose to deploy him this way? He could have sent him to kill Turgon, or to do more damage to the city defenses, or basically anything more useful than killing a 6-year-old.
The other thing is, if he really felt so horrible that he needed death as an atonement, why the need to goad Tuor? The cliff is right there. And goad Tuor how - by struggling to kill his wife and son? If we go into complete alternative histories of events (ie not just the motivations but the actions are different), what would be the goading action? Words?
I don't think this particular version makes it past Occam's razor, but maybe with some modifications it could work.