Quote:
Originally Posted by Formendacil
Given its dramatic position in the chapter, the question for me arises: is this just a case of literary timeliness or did Gandalf somehow influence the weather to line up with the drama of the moment? As an emissary of the Valar, operating now post-Moria in a heightened state of openness, it doesn't seem *entirely* implausible that Manwë has a hand here--but, should we then make something of the fact that this storm rose in the capital-E East?
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I recall some other mentions of controlling weather. Boromir mentions on Caradhras the belief that Sauron controls the weather on the borders of Mordor - something which may well be true to an extent considering his stunt during the Battle for Gondor (the
extent marked by the early southern wind which was obviously against his plans). In the same part of the story, the Fellowship debates whether their weather-related misfortunes are due to natural or unnatural causes. Boromir seems to lean towards intentional malingering; Aragorn and Gimli imply that the causes are likely natural but may be influenced by forces other than Sauron; Gandalf's sage advice is that the cause doesn't make a difference in their immediate decision. The movie, if I recall correctly, takes this up a notch and has Saruman chanting incantations that seem to make the rocks fall and the wind blow, but there doesn't seem anything in the books to positively prove Saruman's involvement.
Gandalf's "wizard display", paticularly as a bearer of Narya and the one with power over fire, could reasonably include some form of play with light and shadow, even some lightning. These elements are seen in association with his "magic" quite frequently. But the real storm you mention does make me wonder - after all just a short time before Legolas sees the sunshine reflect off the roofs in Edoras. Was it a really fast-moving storm, hitting Edoras quite suddenly and passing by within half an hour?
As for the significance of the East... In what way would the East be interested in Edoras to send a storm there? Or what could have occurred eastwards to make the storm originate from an "unnatural" cause at that time? Frodo and Sam are still wandering around, mostly unnoticed, not attracting any attention. Faramir's warriors could be up to something that would invite Sauron's anger, but aren't they always. And if Edoras was really the prime target of the storm - why? To keep Rohan subdued and mislead for longer? Definitely not out of consideration for Saruman's fate. Is it a manifestation of a flare of anger against Gandalf, Aragorn, or the proclaimed members of the Fellowship in general? Then why now, if orcs and a Nazgul have already spotted them over the Anduin and their presence and activities are fairly visible throughout TTT and ROTK? And I would describe Sauron's attitude towards these people more as scorn than anger. If we take the approach of a directed storm, then we have to explain who directed it and at whom (or what).