Now my arguments are going to sound kinda puny after
Man-of-the-Wold's...
I am still firmly of the opinion that the union of Dior and Nimloth should count. As
Man-of-the-Wold pointed out, Nimloth was one of the Eldar (technically, one of the Śmanyar). However, the argument put forth that Dior was not of the Edain because of his mother I find to be...well, for lack of a better term, wrong. After all, Tolkien was using a more medieval-European take on inheritences; in medieval Europe, inheritence of anything (name, land, title, etc.) was thought to come down
only through the father's line. This can be seen in Tolkien's writings, as well: after all, you don't hear anyone claiming that Fingolfin and Finarfin were only "half-Noldor" because their mother was a Vanya. They were considered fully Noldorin, because the mother's lineage was not counted. In this way, Dior would still be considered one of the Edain, because his father was one of the Edain. Of course, J.R.R's take on such an argument is pure conjecture, but I still think I'm right.
