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Originally Posted by Galadriel55
It makes perfect sense for the story that Earendil is literally halfelven. But that is a bit strange in the broader picture, since he is the only one of the Peredhil to be exactly half-half. Tolkien never seemed to me as one who paid much attention to being politically-correct. Earendil must really be a special case with the symbolic representation of the Two Kindreds.
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I find it intriguing that an entreaty by a true "halfelven" was the only means by which the aid of the Valar to defeat Morgoth could be obtained.
Obviously, the Noldor were the ones under the Doom; they had committed terrible acts of murder in the Blessed Realm itself, and there could be no easy solution for them. But what about the Edain? They were drawn to the West out of desire to see the fabled Light there, and to escape Morgoth. They should not have been part of the Doom.
Yet, in the chapter before, foreshadowing Eärendil, there is an account of a plea to the Valar from Ulmo in which he asks them to deliver the Noldor and recover the Silmarils. The answer was no, and it was said:
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....the hour was not yet come, and that only one speaking in person for the cause of both Elves and Men, pleading for pardon on their misdeeds and pity on their woes, might move the counsels of the Powers....
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So, the Noldor had been guilty of the Kinslaying, and other evil deeds in Beleriand later. Why did Men have to be spoken for? Because some of them had followed Morgoth? Does that indicate that the Dwarves were in no need of a spokesman, that they just weren't as "guilty" in the eyes of the Valar as the other two kindreds?