[littlemanpoet]

Crap. I just lost all of what I answered to this. Here goes again....

Originally Posted by Bêthberry

First, if LotR is a matter of Tolkien appropriating Romance for his story, does that use of Romance so thoroughly alter the depiction of men as well as of women?

It would be a mistake to reduce it to that. Actually, the contemporary understanding of gender role and nature is the historical aberration. Granted, we may see it as the most evolved or developed state (or not), but general intellecutal, values-oriented, socio-economic, and political equality (or at least the belief that so it ought to be) has not been the norm.

Originally Posted by Bb

Second, is Tolkien, in both cases--his letter to his son and his creative writing--engaged in discussing or portraying cultural constructs of women?

Most assuredly.

Originally Posted by Bb

And, thirdly, what would it mean to portray women this way--"free of the dross" as we seem to say here on the Barrow Downs?

That would be "free of the gross", to be accurate. One writer's "gross" may be another's "passable". What, in gender role, be considered "gross" on the Rohan RP forum? Most RPrs do make a conscious effort to employ in their writing as much as they can discern of Eorling culture. That as a given, we would have to go with what Tolkien has told us about that culture, which is (with translator's conceit accounted for) basically and only Anglo-Saxon in nature, and loosely based on medieval conceptions (though not entirely, whatever that is supposed to mean). So is "gross", perhaps, "practical woman employing the language of Romance in order to find a man to marry"? I think not. Romance, as such, was high-medieval, and Eorling culture was based on more or less (c)1000 A.D. Anglo-Saxon culture (I think).

Originally Posted by Bb

Is this a matter of Tolkien's faith assuming that human sexual identity is all part and parcel of "evil" in this world?

I think Tolkien took "practical female" and "idealistic male" as creationally normative. Evil, he would say (I think), would be any aberrations thereto (such as contemporary understandings).

Originally Posted by Bb

Tolkien's letter finds fault with the courtly love mode, after all.

It is an aberration.

Originally Posted by Bb

You mean, his curious ways of sidestepping the issue of moral choice and redemption of orcs?

How does he do this?

Originally Posted by Bb

And, what ever was behind Fea's outburst that Tolkien can go suck lemons?

Oh, that's easy. She was horrified and depressed that someone who could write something as great as LotR could have such ridiculous views..... (if I know Fea...)