The reason I was wondering about this is that, as far as I can remember, gandalf associates the multiplication of orcs in the mountains with other portents of the rise of Sauron. If these two events are associated, there might be a causal relationship between them, i.e. Sauron is responsible for artificially raising the numbers of orcs. So orcs might have something of the Bladerunner replicant or Frankenstein's monster about them.
This would also explain how Saruman was able to work in his own race of orcs. he learned how by " studying the arts of the enemy".
The use of the 3rd, sing. masc. pronoun would then just be a case of "nearest to" personification, like the sun being "she" etc; without any implication of a gender opposite.
Incidentally, I agree about the books being biased against orcs.
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