This does seem to be a bit of a grey area. There are two related points against accepting the late use of 'Pengološ' in 'Cirdan':
1. Tolkien's note proposing a change to 'Thingodhel'.
2. The statement in Q&E that 'golodh' was not used among the Noldor or those most friendly to them.
If it were a matter of point 1 alone, I would say that the appearance of 'Pengološ' in 'Cirdan' pretty clearly takes precedence. But point 2 makes this much more doubtful.
It's perhaps worth noting that in the text of Q&E itself, Tolkien uses 'Pengolodh' several times without appearing to worry about a contradiction with his statement (in the very same text) about the non-use of 'golodh'. On the other hand, in all likelihood the change to 'Thingodhel' arose when he noticed this contradiction.
|